The difference is that Genghis Khan ordered the massacre of whole populations in Khwarezm out of revenge. This was NOT the same tactic used previously, where the ONLY purpose of massacre was to make future conquest easier. You won't find 25% of the populace of northern China killed as a result of Genghis Khan prior to the invasion of Khwarezm.
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Originally Posted by PhinPhan1227
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So, compared to even his own previous conquests, the percentage of dead far exceeded what was the norm. This is the equivalent of what we today call genocide, and it happened on a massive scale. So, no I don't see an argument suggesting that those deaths were inevitable, since we have similar situations (without the deliberate massacre for reasons other than psychological warfare) to compare it to.



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