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Thread: Violent Games Legislation Introduced to US Congress

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    Quote Originally Posted by TheWalrus View Post
    Are you not aware that Australia's mandatory buyback coincided with a 59% drop in gun violence?
    Overall violence, specifically homicide, is far more relevant. How many homicides that would have normally been committed with a gun prior to the '96 gun ban were then committed with another weapon after the ban? How many deaths were caused by black market trade? How many homicides can be attributed to the average criminal being better armed than your typical law-abiding citizen? How many homicides were prevented prior to the '96 gun ban by law-abiding citizens mortally wounding would-be violent repeaters? Obviously these are questions can't be answered since they can't be quantified, but they would help explain why there isn't a drastic decrease in overall homicide since the '96 gun ban.

    homicides_australia_chart.jpg

    Quote Originally Posted by FactCheck.org
    In the seven years prior to 1997, firearms were used in 24 percent of all Australian homicides. But most recently, firearms were used in only 11 percent of Australian homicides, according to figures for the 12 months ending July 1, 2007. That’s a decline of more than half since enactment of the gun law to which this message refers.

    Some scholars even credit the 1996 gun law with causing the decrease in deaths from firearms, though they are still debating that point. A 2003 study from AIC, which looked at rates between 1991 and 2001, found that some of the decline in firearm-related homicides (and suicides as well) began before the reform was enacted. On the other hand, a 2006 analysis by scholars at the University of Sydney concluded that gun fatalities decreased more quickly after the reform. Yet another analysis, from 2008, from the University of Melbourne, concluded that the buyback had no significant effect on firearm suicide or homicide rates.

    So there’s no consensus about whether the changes decreased gun violence or had little to no effect. But the only argument we’ve seen arguing that it caused an increase in murder comes from our anonymous e-mail author.

    http://www.factcheck.org/2009/05/gun...-in-australia/
    This is an isolated example, so even were this particular sample of sufficient size it wouldn't tell us a whole hell of a lot. That said, I'd like to see a study done that proves a positive-correlation between strict gun control and a reduction of homicides (per capita). Even if a positive correlation could be found, at what rate would the reduction of homicide justify the loss of individual liberty? Then there's the issue of whether not crime as a whole has been reduced by disarming law-abiding citizens. Once those issues have been addressed, you would then have to weigh it against the possible threat of tyranny (foreign and domestic). Even if one argues the chances domestic tyranny is low, almost a quarter of a billion people have died over the last century as a result of tyranny. In every case the citizens were disarmed. If a tyrant seized control of this country it would be almost impossible to mount a resistance with guns, because it would be an Orwellian Society. Needless to say, resistance would be impossible without guns.
    Last edited by Breed; 01-26-2013 at 10:04 PM.
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