I think we are all aware that a man can get HIV from a woman. But statistically the chance of getting HIV through v@ginal intercourse ranges from 1:100 to 1:500. Conversely, stats show that anal intercourse has a 1:3 chance of infection. Look at the graph below (2003)
Let's be honest. Obviously one can contract HIV without being gay. But with the stats so heavily skewed for gays and drug users, is calling this disease a gay disease that far off? Look at the trends for just the last 3 years. Male to male sexual contact is the only one that has steadily increased in just the last 3 years alone. Just curious about anyone else's interpretation.